McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Know by Test Day

McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Know by Test Day

by Esme E. Faerber
McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Know by Test Day

McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Know by Test Day

by Esme E. Faerber

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Overview

We want you to succeed on the Series 7 exam. That's why we've selected these 500 questions to help you study more effectively, use your preparation time wisely, and get your best score. These questions and answers are similar to the ones you'll find on the Series 7 exam, so you will know what to expect on test day. Each question includes acomprehensive explanation in the answer key for your full understanding of the concepts. Whether you have been studying all year or are doing a last-minute review, McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Knowby Test Day will help you achieve the high score you desire.

Sharpen your subject knowledge and build yourtest-taking confidence with:

  • 500 Series 7 exam questions with answers
  • Clear solutions in the answer key for every problem
  • A format parallel to that of the Series 7 exam


Product Details

ISBN-13: 9780071789783
Publisher: McGraw Hill LLC
Publication date: 12/19/2012
Pages: 192
Sales rank: 646,276
Product dimensions: 5.90(w) x 8.90(h) x 0.30(d)

About the Author

Esme Faerbe, CPA (Bryn Mawr, PA) is a professor of business and accounting at Rosemont College. Her previous books include All About Bonds and All About Stocks

Read an Excerpt

McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Know by Test Day


By Esmé Faerber

McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.

Copyright © 2013 Esmé Faerber
All right reserved.

ISBN: 978-0-07-178978-3


Chapter One

Common Stock and Preferred Stock

1. The book value of common stock is the same as

(A) par value

(B) liquidation value

(C) net worth

(D) net tangible asset value per share

2. At the company's shareholder meeting, five positions are up for election to the board of directors. Jason Smart owns 200 shares, and voting is on a cumulative basis. Which of the following are acceptable ways for Jason to vote?

I. 200 votes for each of the five candidates

II. 1,000 votes for one candidate

III. 600 votes for one candidate and 100 votes for each of the other four candidates

IV. 1,000 votes for each candidate

(A) I, II, and IV

(B) I only

(C) I, III, and IV

(D) I, II, and III

3. ABC Corporation issues new shares to its existing shareholders through a rights offering. The stock is offered to its existing shareholders at $20 per share and eight rights. The market price of ABC stock is $26 per share. What is the value of a cum-right?

(A) $0.67

(B) $0.75

(C) $1.33

(D) $1.50

4. Four directors are to be elected under the statutory method. If a shareholder owns 100 shares, how would he or she cast these votes?

I. 400 votes for one director

II. 100 votes for each director

III. 300 votes for one director and 100 votes for one director

(A) I, II, and III

(B) I and III

(C) II only

(D) I and II

5. WAZ Corporation's stock trades ex-dividend on Tuesday, April 8. If a shareholder would like to receive the dividend, on which day should the investor purchase the stock?

(A) Friday, April 4

(B) Thursday, April 3

(C) Wednesday, April 2

(D) Monday, April 7

6. Treasury stock is considered to be

(A) authorized and issued shares

(B) issued and outstanding shares

(C) authorized and unissued shares

(D) unissued and outstanding shares

7. The ex-dividend date for trading common stock is

(A) two business days after the record date

(B) two business days before the record date

(C) one business day before the record date

(D) one business day after the record date

8. Which of the following statements about a limit order to sell stock is true?

(A) If the market price of the stock trades at or above the limit price, the order will be executed.

(B) If the market price of the stock trades below the limit price, the order will be executed.

(C) Once the limit order is triggered, the order could be filled below the limit price.

(D) None of the above

9. Which of the following ratios indicates high leverage for a corporation?

(A) High working capital

(B) High current ratio

(C) High gross margin

(D) High debt-to-equity ratio

10. XYZ Corporation has 5,000,000 common shares and 1,000,000 shares of 6 percent $100 par value cumulative preferred stock. During the recession of the past two years, XYZ suspended all dividend payments. This year XYZ returned to profitability, and the board of directors declared a $1 per share common stock dividend to be paid at the end of the year. How much would XYZ have to pay in dividends this year?

(A) $5,000,000

(B) $11,000,000

(C) $17,000,000

(D) $23,000,000

11. A technical analyst is most concerned with which of the following?

I. EPS

II. P/E ratio

III. Resistance and support levels

IV. Market timing

(A) I, II, and IV

(B) IV only

(C) III and IV

(D) III only

12. A fundamental analyst is least concerned with

(A) short interest ratio

(B) earnings per share

(C) industry analysis

(D) cash flow analysis

13. A stock has a beta coefficient of 1.10. What does this mean?

(A) This stock is less volatile than the market.

(B) If the market goes up, this stock is expected to decline in price.

(C) If the market goes up, this stock should increase in price.

(D) If the market goes down, this stock should decline by less than the percentage decline of the market.

14. Which of the following information cannot be determined from the balance sheet alone?

(A) Current ratio

(B) Debt-to-equity ratio

(C) Return on equity

(D) Retained earnings

Questions 15 and 16 are based on the following information:

The ticker tape for XYZ Corporation's stock shows the following: 36.10, 36.20, 36.50, 36.00, 36.10, 36.20

An investor initiates a sell stop order for 100 shares of XYZ at 36.00.

15. At what price was the order triggered?

(A) 36.10

(B) 36.20

(C) 36.50

(D) 36.00

16. At what price was the order executed?

(A) 36.10

(B) 36.20

(C) 36.50

(D) 36.00

17. A specialist holds which type of orders in his or her book?

I. Stop orders

II. Limit orders

III. Market orders

IV. Not-held orders

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) I, II, and III

(D) II and IV

18. Which type of investment is most suitable for an investor to invest in for an infant child's future college education?

(A) Junk bonds

(B) Treasury bonds

(C) Blue-chip stocks

(D) Speculative stocks

19. XYZ Corporation issues new shares but decides not to sell them all. Under a shelf registration, XYZ can sell the shares held back within the next ______________ without having to reregister them.

(A) two years

(B) one year

(C) 270 days

(D) None of the above

20. A trade involving two institutions that do not use the services of a broker-dealer takes place in the

(A) first market

(B) second market

(C) third market

(D) fourth market

21. Stocks with high P/E ratios that do NOT pay or pay low dividends would be typical of

(A) value stocks

(B) blue-chip stocks

(C) growth stocks

(D) utility company stocks

22. A 5.5 percent preferred stock with a $100 par value is trading at $80 per share and is callable at $101 per share. What is its nominal yield?

(A) 6.88 percent

(B) 5.45 percent

(C) 5.5 percent

(D) None of the above

23. An investor owns 2,000 shares of XYZ Corporation and decides to sell 1,000 shares. Which statement about the sale is true?

(A) The investor can specify which shares are to be sold in order to minimize capital gains.

(B) The investor must use the LIFO method to identify which shares are to be sold.

(C) The investor must use the FIFO method to identify which shares are to be sold.

(D) The investor does not have a choice in determining which of the shares are to be sold.

24. The pink sheets provide

I. quotes for stocks listed on NASDAQ

II. quotes for exchange-listed stocks

III. wholesale quotes for OTC stocks that are thinly traded or too small to be listed on NASDAQ

IV. the names of the market makers for OTC stocks

(A) I and IV

(B) II and IV

(C) III and IV

(D) I and III

Questions 25 and 26 are based on the following information:

Balance Sheet information for XYZ Corporation as of December 31, 20XX, and Income Statement information for the year ended December 31, 20XX

Cash $5,000,000 Depreciation $500,000 Interest expense $100,000 Operating profit (EBIT) $4,000,000 Taxation 40% Preferred dividends 250,000 Common stock dividends 200,000 Number of shares outstanding 1,000,000 Market price of the common stock $15

25. What is the price/earnings ratio?

(A) 7.94

(B) 7.18

(C) 0.14

(D) 6.41

26. What is the cash flow per share?

(A) $5.00

(B) $4.50

(C) $2.84

(D) $2.09

27. If an investor wants a specified price or better when buying and selling stocks, which types of orders should he or she place?

(A) Buy stops and sell stops

(B) Buy limits and sell limits

(C) Buy stops and sell limits

(D) Buy limits and sell stops

28. XYZ Corporation has a 6 percent participating preferred stock issue, along with a common stock issue. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Participating preferred shareholders receive a minimum dividend payment of 6 percent.

(B) Participating preferred shareholders receive an average dividend payment of 6 percent.

(C) Participating preferred shareholders receive only 6 percent in dividends.

(D) Participating preferred shareholders receive a maximum dividend payment of 6 percent.

29. An investor bought 1,000 shares of XZ Corporation's common stock at $35 per share and paid a total commission of $20 for the trade. If XZ issues a 10 percent stock dividend, which of the following statements is true after the stock dividend?

(A) The investor has 1,100 shares at a cost basis of $35.02 per share.

(B) The investor has 1,000 shares at a cost basis of $35.02 per share.

(C) The investor has 1,100 shares at a cost basis of $31.84 per share.

(D) The investor has 1,000 shares at a cost basis of $31.84 per share.

30. A company whose stock trades at $40 per share and has earnings per share of $5 decides on a 2-for-1 stock split. After the stock split, which of the following statements is true?

I. The earnings per share is $5.

II. The earnings per share is $2.50.

III. The price/earnings ratio is 8.

IV. The price/earnings ratio is 4.

(A) I and III

(B) II and IV

(C) I and IV

(D) II and III

31. Which of the following statements about ADRs is true?

(A) They assist foreign investors in investing in U.S. stocks.

(B) They assist U.S. investors in investing in foreign stocks.

(C) They assist U.S. investors in investing in U.S. stocks.

(D) They assist foreign investors in investing in foreign stocks.

32. Which of the following actions does NOT decrease working capital?

(A) Paying off long-term bonds three years before the maturity date

(B) Declaring a dividend

(C) Paying a dividend

(D) Buying machinery for cash

33. Which of the following statements about an advance-decline line used by technical analysts best portrays its use?

(A) Shows the volatility of the market

(B) Shows the integrity of the market

(C) Shows the volume of stocks traded in the market

(D) Shows the direction of the market

Questions 34 and 35 are based on the following information:

A computer shows the following information for XYZZ, a NASDAQ-listed stock:

L 6.12 O 5.85 C 6.10 B 6 H 6.15 NC +.20 A 6.15 L 5.85 V 320

34. What is the quote for XYZZ stock?

(A) 6.10 - 6.12

(B) 5.85 - 6.15

(C) 6 - 6.10

(D) 6 - 6.15

35. If an investor placed a limit order to sell XYZZ at 6.12 when the stock traded at 6.15, why was the order NOT executed?

(A) The stock never traded above 6.

(B) The last trade was 5.85.

(C) The stock traded at 6.15 on the previous day.

(D) The trade at 6.15 was by another market maker.

36. What determines the yield on common stock?

I. Earnings

II. Dividends paid

III. Number of shares outstanding

IV. Market price of the stock

(A) I and III

(B) II and IV

(C) I, II, and IV

(D) III and IV

37. If a company sells newly issued $5 million, 6 percent debenture bonds maturing in 2040, which of the following balance sheet accounts will increase?

I. Current liabilities

II. Total liabilities

III. Current assets

IV. Net worth

(A) I and III

(B) I, II, and III

(C) II, III, and IV

(D) II and III

38. The support level is

(A) the lower level of a stock's trading range

(B) the upper level of a stock's trading range

(C) the middle level of a stock's trading range

(D) None of the above

39. A stock has a P/E ratio of 15 when the market price is $60 per share. What is the company's EPS?

(A) $0.25

(B) $4.00

(C) $1.00

(D) Cannot be determined from the information provided

40. An investor owns 1,000 shares of XYZ Corporation when the corporation announces a 1-for-4 reverse stock split. Before the stock split, XYZ's stock was trading at $1.50 per share. After the stock split, what ownership position will the investor have?

(A) 4,000 shares at $0.37 per share

(B) 1,000 shares at $6.00 per share

(C) 250 shares at $1.50 per share

(D) 250 shares at $6.00 per share

41. Which of the following trades of 770 shares is NOT good delivery for a trade?

(A) One certificate of 700 shares and one certificate of 70 shares

(B) Two certificates of 300 shares, one certificate of 100 shares, and one certificate of 70 shares

(C) Nine certificates of 70 shares, one certificate of 50 shares, and one certificate of 90 shares

(D) Three certificates of 200 shares, one certificate of 100 shares, and one certificate of 70 shares

42. A corporation has 6 percent participating preferred stock. What does the 6 percent mean?

(A) Maximum dividend payment

(B) Minimum dividend payment

(C) Actual dividend payment

(D) None of the above

43. Shareholders of a corporation must approve which of the following?

I. Giving shareholders a stock dividend

II. Giving shareholders a cash dividend

III. Splitting the stock

IV. Reverse-splitting the stock

(A) I and II only

(B) III and IV only

(C) All of the above

(D) None of the above

44. One of your clients is interested in equity investments that pay dividends. Which of the following investments would you NOT recommend?

(A) XYZ common stock

(B) XYZ preferred stock

(C) XYZ convertible preferred stock

(D) XYZ warrants

Chapter Two

Bonds

45. An investor buys fifty 6 percent coupon bonds at $101, maturing in 20 years. The bonds are currently trading at $102. How much semiannual interest will the investor receive?

(A) $3,030

(B) $1,530

(C) $3,000

(D) $1,500

46. An investor purchases a bond with a coupon yield of 4 percent maturing in six years. If the yield-to-maturity on the bond is 4.9 percent, how much did the investor pay for the bond?

(A) Above $1,000

(B) Below $1,000

(C) $1,000

(D) Cannot determine the price from the information presented

47. An investor purchased a 4 percent coupon bond, maturing in 10 years, at 85. The investor holds the bond for five years and sells it at 90. What is the investor's gain or loss?

(A) $50 gain

(B) $500 gain

(C) $100 loss

(D) $25 loss

48. Which of the following is NOT a money market security?

(A) Commercial paper

(B) Treasury bills

(C) Treasury notes

(D) CDs

49. Determine the tax consequences of the following transaction: An investor purchases five convertible bonds at 93 and a week later converts the bonds into common stock. The conversion price is $40, and the investor sells the shares at $38 per share.

(A) $20 capital gain

(B) $20 capital loss

(C) $100 capital gain

(D) $100 capital loss

50. An investor purchases a 4.5 percent bond at 90 that matures in 10 years. What is the tax liability of this bond?

(A) $45

(B) $35

(C) $55

(D) $145

51. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to a bond that is selling at a premium?

(A) The nominal yield is greater than the current yield.

(B) The market price of the bond is greater than the face value of the bond.

(C) The yield-to-maturity is greater than the current yield.

(D) Market rates of interest more than likely increased after this bond is issued.

Questions 52 and 53 are based on the following information:

A company issues 5 percent convertible bonds maturing in eight years. The bonds were sold at 80 per bond.

52. An investor purchased five of these bonds. What is the investor's current yield?

(A) 5 percent

(B) 6.25 percent

(C) 7.25 percent

(D) None of the above

53. In decreasing order, the yields are

(A) yield-to-maturity, current, and nominal

(B) yield-to-maturity, nominal, and current

(C) nominal, current, and yield-to-maturity

(D) current, nominal, and yield-to-maturity

54. The balance sheet of XYZ Corporation shows $1,000,000 of callable bonds with a conversion price of $33 and $1 par value common stock of $2,000,000. If net income is $2,300,000, then what is the earnings per share?

(A) $2.00

(B) $1.15

(C) $1.00

(D) $0.87

55. An investor buys a Treasury bond on Tuesday, June 5. How many days of accrued interest must the investor pay if the Treasury bond last paid interest on March 15?

(A) 80 days

(B) 81 days

(C) 82 days

(D) 83 days

56. Which statements are true about Treasury STRIP securities?

I. Investors pay taxes on interest earned at maturity.

II. Investors pay taxes on annual interest earned.

III. Investors receive semiannual interest payments.

IV. Investors are paid principal and interest at maturity.

(A) I and II

(B) I and III

(C) II and IV

(D) I and IV

57. If interest rates are expected to increase over the next decade, which types of investments would you advise an investor to make?

(A) 20-year Treasury bonds

(B) 20-year zero-coupon bonds

(C) 20-year corporate bonds

(D) 6-month Treasury bills

58. A quote of 102.04 for a 20-year Treasury bond in dollar amounts is

(A) $102.04

(B) $1,020.25

(C) $1,021.25

(D) $1,020.40

59. Which of the following securities are NOT quoted in 32nds?

(A) GNMAs

(B) Treasury notes

(C) Treasury bills

(D) FNMAs

60. An investor seeking the highest return from a typical "plain vanilla" CMO would invest in the

(A) principal-only tranche

(B) interest-only tranche

(C) first tranche

(D) last tranche

61. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Federal National Mortgage Association?

(A) Lends mortgage money directly to qualified veterans

(B) Sets mortgage rates and terms for qualified buyers of property

(C) Promotes liquidity in the secondary mortgage market

(D) All of the above

62. Which types of risk are avoided when investing in zero-coupon bonds?

I. Inflation risk

II. Interest rate risk

III. Credit risk

IV. Reinvestment rate risk

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) III and IV

(D) II and IV

63. Investors in GNMA pass-through securities receive

(A) monthly payments of interest

(B) monthly payments of interest and principal

(C) monthly interest and principal at maturity

(D) interest on a quarterly basis

64. Treasury Inflation Protection Securities (TIPS) face the greatest erosion to principal from which of the following?

I. Rising interest rates in the economy

II. Declining interest rates in the economy

III. Increasing inflation

IV. Decreasing inflation

(A) I and III

(B) II and IV

(C) I and IV

(D) II and III

65. What is the price of a Treasury bill sold with a discount yield of 1 percent with a maturity of 180 days?

(A) $995

(B) $990

(C) $950

(D) $900

66. An investor wishing to protect an investment against rising inflation should invest in

(A) Treasury bills

(B) Treasury notes

(C) Treasury bonds

(D) common stock

(Continues...)



Excerpted from McGraw-Hill's 500 Series 7 Exam Questions to Know by Test Day by Esmé Faerber Copyright © 2013 by Esmé Faerber. Excerpted by permission of McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.. All rights reserved. No part of this excerpt may be reproduced or reprinted without permission in writing from the publisher.
Excerpts are provided by Dial-A-Book Inc. solely for the personal use of visitors to this web site.

Table of Contents

Preface vii

Preparing for the Exam ix

Chapter 1 Common Stock and Preferred Stock 1

Questions 1-44

Chapter 2 Bonds 13

Questions 45-95

Chapter 3 Municipal Bonds 25

Questions 96-149

Chapter 4 Margin Accounts and Long and Short Investments 37

Questions 150-175

Chapter 5 Options 45

Questions 176-256

Chapter 6 Investment Companies 63

Questions 257-300

Chapter 7 Underwriting: The Securities Act of 1933 73

Questions 301-332

Chapter 8 Exchanges: The NYSE and NASD 83

Questions 333-384

Chapter 9 Direct Participation Programs 97

Questions 385-418

Chapter 10 Taxation Issues 105

Questions 419-447

Chapter 11 Financial Statement Analysis 113

Questions 448-500

Answers 125

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